A 37-year-old woman with a history of 2 years of primary infertility, regular menstrual cycles, high prolactin, normal hysterosalpingography

A 37-year-old woman with a history of 2 years of primary infertility, regular menstrual cycles, high prolactin, hysterosalpingography is normal. In the performed studies, AMH is 0.5, the spermogram of the partner is normal. With this history, they underwent IVF in 1996 (three years ago), and despite stimulation of high-dose ovulation, only one dominant follicle was observed on ultrasound, and no egg was obtained during the puncture.

What is your recommended treatment?